CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –6
(Metrics and Measurement)
Q1. Measurement data is most reliable when it is generated exclusively for measuring product or service quality. True / False
Q2. Measurement can be used to gauge the status, effectiveness and efficiency of processes, customer satisfaction, product quality, and as a tool for management to use in their decision-making processes. True / False
Q3. A _____________ is a single quantitative attribute of an entity.
Q4. A metric is a ____________ unit of measurement that cannot be directly observed, but is created by combining or relating two or more measures.
Q5. A metric normalizes data so that comparison is possible. True / False
Q6. __________ measurement uses hard data that can be obtained by counting, stacking, weighing, timing.
Q7. An objective measurement should result in ————- values for a given measure, when measured by two or more qualified observers.
a) Identical
b) Different
c) Sometimes same
d) Not sure
Q8. Subjective data is normally observed or perceived. It is a person’s perception of a product or activity, and includes personal attitudes, feelings and opinions, such as how easy a system is to use, or the skill level needed to execute the system. True / False
Q9. Objective measurement is more reliable than subjective measurement, but as a general rule, subjective measurement is considered more important. True / False
Q10. The more difficult something is to measure, the less valuable it is. True / False
Q11. The four types of measured data are
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
e) All the above
Q12. Nominal data can be subjected to arithmetic operations of any type, and the values cannot be ranked in any “natural order.” True / False
Q13. In ordinal data, the data can be ranked, but differences or ratios between values are not meaningful. True / False
Q14. __________ data has no absolute zero, and ratios of values are not necessarily meaningful.
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
e) All the above
Q15. In Ratio type data, the data has an absolute zero and meaningful ratios can be calculated. True / False
Q16. The measures of central tendency are the mean, medium, and mode. True / False
Q17. Ideally models should be developed that are capable of predicting process or product parameters, not just describing them. This is facilitated by measures and resulting metrics that are:
a) Simple and precisely definable, so it is clear how they can be evaluated
b) Objective
c) Easily obtainable at reasonable cost
d) Valid, measuring what they are intended to measure
e) Robust,
f) All the above
Q18. Match the pairs
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Calibration
1. Robustness
2. Consistency if measurement
3. modification of a measurement
4. degree to which a measure actually measures what it was intended to measure.
Q19. Measurement dashboards are used to monitor progress and initiate change. True / False
Q20. Using dashboards is known as “ _______________”
a) Management by Act
b) Management by time
c) One minute Manger
d) Management by fact
Q21. Statistical process control is used to ensure that the process behaves in a ___________ manner.
Q22. For a software product, the requirements, the complexity of the software design, the size of the final program’s source or object code, or the number of pages of documentation produced for the installed system can be measured. True / False
Q23. The cyclomatic complexity of such a graph can be computed by a simple formula from graph theory, as v(G)=e-n+2, where e is the number of edges, and n is the number of nodes in the graph. True / False
Q24. A _________ is defined as a necessary crossing of directional lines in the graph.
a) Cross
b) Node
c) Knot
d) All the above
Q25. Reliability is defined as the probability of a software failure, or the rate at which software errors will occur. True / False
Q26. Customer perception of product quality is measured using
a) Customer surveys
b) Service level agreements
c) Loyalty
d) Recommendations to others
e) All the above
Q27. _____________ are those that can be controlled by improving the work processes.
a) Common causes
b) Special causes
c) Generic Causes
d) Controllable causes
Q28. Special causes are those that must be controlled outside the process; typically they need to be dealt with individually. True / False
Q29. A measurement program is defined as the entire set of activities that occur around ___________ data.
Q30. Mature organizations typically measure for budget, schedule, and project status, and management relies on project teams to determine when requirements are done. True / False
Q31. People in Quality group should help develop the measure. True / False
Q32. When results are not achieved, a quality management philosophy tells the organization to look at how the system (i.e., its processes) can be improved rather than reacting, making emotional decisions, and blaming people. True / False
Q33. The management by fact process contains two components:
1. Meeting desired results.
2. Managing the processes to drive the results.
True / False
Q34. A process is defined as ____________ when its mean and standard deviation remain constant over time.
a) Unstable
b) Unreliable
c) Stable
d) Reliable
e) Controllable
Q35. A ___________ process is predictable,
a) Unstable
b) Unreliable
c) Stable
d) Reliable
e) Controllable
Q36. If special causes of variation exist, the process may be unpredictable, and therefore stable. True / False
Q37. A state of statistical control is established when all special causes of variation have been eliminated True / False
Q38. Classify into common causes and Special causes
No available disk space, Citywide power returns or business returns to normal operations after 3 days, Invalid data, Errors in operating or job, Control instructions, The operator strike ends
Q39. Because special causes are `sporadic contributors,’ due to some specific circumstances, the `process’ or `system’ variability is defined without them.” True / False
Q40. Improvements to address the ———- causes of variation usually require process or system changes.
a) Common causes
b) Special causes
c) Generic Causes
d) Controllable causes
Q41. Reducing variation due to common causes is process improvement and the real essence of continuous process improvement. True / False
Q42. Which is the most capable process and why?
Q43. Risk management involves the activities of defining, measuring, prioritizing, and managing risk in order to eliminate or minimize any potential negative effect associated with risk. True / False
Q44. Risk is the possibility that an unfavorable event will occur. True / False
Q45. The probability of risk occurring at the beginning of the project is very low (due to the unknowns), whereas at the end of the project the probability is very high. True / False
Q46. Risk management is the process used to identify, analyze, and respond to a risk. True / False
Q47. Risk management consists of
a) Risk Identification
b) Risk Quantification
c) Risk Response Development
d) Risk Response Control
e) All the above
Q48. Match the pair
1. Risk Identification
2. Risk Analysis
3. Risk Prioritization
4. Risk Response Planning
5. Risk Resolution
6. Risk Monitoring
a. The process that evaluates the action taken, documents the risk results and repeats the cycle of identification, quantification and response.
b. The process that answers the question “What should be done about the risk?”
c. The process that answers the question “Which risks do we care about?”
d. The process that answers the question “What are the risks?”
e. The process that answers the question “How are the risks prioritized?”
f. The process that executes the plan that was developed in the prior step.
Q49. Expected value =
a) Value * Cost
b) Probability * Impact
c) Probability * value
d) Cost * impact
Q50. Typical responses for risk include: procurement, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance. True / False
Answers:
Q1. False
Q2. True
Q3. Measure
Q4. Derived
Q5. True
Q6. Objective
Q7. a)Identical
Q8. True
Q9. True
Q10. False
Q11. All of the above
Q12. False
Q13. True
Q14. C
Q15. True
Q16. True
Q17. All the above
Q18. A-2, B-4, C-3
Q19. True
Q20. D
Q21. Consistent
Q22. True
Q23. True
Q24. C
Q25. True
Q26. E
Q27. A
Q28. True
Q29. quantitative
Q30. False
Q31. False
Q32. True
Q33. True
Q34. C
Q35. C
Q36. False
Q37. True
Q38. Special causes: the operator strike ends, citywide power returns or business returns to normal operations after an
Common causes: invalid data, no available disk space, and errors in operating or job
control instructions.
Q39. True
Q40. A
Q41. True
Q42. C
Q43. True
Q44. True
Q45. False
Q46. True
Q47. E
Q48. Risk Identification – this process answers the question “What are the risks?”
Risk Analysis – this process answers the question “Which risks do we care about?”
Risk Prioritization – this process answers the question “How are the risks prioritized?”
Risk Response Planning – this process answers the question “What should be done
about the risk?”
Risk Resolution – this process executes the plan that was developed in the prior step.
Risk Monitoring – this process evaluates the action taken, documents the risk results
and repeats the cycle of identification, quantification and response
Q49. B. Probability * Impact
Q50. True
source : http://istqbquestionbank.blogspot.ca/
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